Online Test for Fire Insurance (Department 01) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs. Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. Condition 3 of the Fire Policy Provides:
A) During currency of the policy, the insurers should provide notice to insured if there are any material alternation.
B) During currency of the policy the insured should provide notice to insurers if there are any material alternation.
C) During currency of the policy the insurers should not provide any notice to insured if there are any material alternation.
D) If their is no material alternation, during the currency of the policy, notice should be provided by insurers to insured.

Q.The Tariff Advisory Committee have laid down Rules, Regulations, Rates , Advantages, Terms and Conditions for Fire Insurance Business in India under the provisions of_________________
A) Part IIIB of the Insurance Act,1938
B) Part IIIB of the Insurance Act, 1939
C) Part IIB of the Insurance Act,1938
D) Part IIB of the Insurance Act,1939

Q. What do you understand by the term Fire Insurance Contract?
A) Governed by the general law of contract as embodied in the Indian Contract Act,1872, and a fire insurance contract must have the following essential ingredients of fire in order to make it enforceable
B) Governed by the general law of contract as embodied in the Indian Contract Act,1873, and a fire insurance contract must have the following essential ingredients of fire in order to make it enforceable
C) Governed by the general law of contract as embodied in the Indian Contract Act,1874, and a fire insurance contract must have the following essential ingredients of fire in order to make it enforceable
D) Governed by the general law of contract as embodied in the Indian Contract Act,1875, and a fire insurance contract must have the following essential ingredients of fire in order to make it enforceable
E) None of the above

Q. To the cost of what expenditure is limited?
A) To the cost of reinstating the property to its pre-fire condition and to the sum insured.
B) To the cost of instating the property to its pre-fire condition and to the sum insured.
C) To the cost of reinstating the property to its pre-fire condition and to the sum re-insured.
D) To the cost of instating the property to its pre-fire condition and to the sum re-insured.
E) To the cost of reinstating the property to its pre-fire condition and to the sum under insured.

Q. State the duty of the insured.
A) To observe good faith only at the pre-insurance stage and after the occurrence of a loss.
B) To observe good faith not only at the pre-insurance stage but also during the currency of the policy and specially after the occurrence of a loss.
C) To condone good faith not only at the pre-insurance stage but also during the currency of the policy and specially after the occurrence of a loss.
D) To condone good faith only at the pre-insurance stage and after the occurrence of a loss.
E) To observe good faith only at the pre-reinsurance stage and after the occurrence of a loss.

Q. What do understand by the term Onus of proof?
A) Task or duty imposed on someone to prove that, what he has stated or affirmed is true.
B) Task or duty imposed on someone to prove that, what he has stated or affirmed is not true.
C) Task or duty imposed on someone to prove that, what he has stated or affirmed is partially true.
D) Task or duty imposed on someone to prove that, what he has stated or affirmed is partially wrong.
E) Statement is jumbled up

Q. The doctrine of proximate cause applies equally to exceptions. If the loss is approximately caused by an excepted peril, there is no liability under the policy.
A) Statement is correct
B) Statement is not correct.
C) Statement is partially correct
D) Statement is partially wrong.
E) Statement is jumbled up

Q. Sate the most important rules of Interpretation Of Policies.
A) The intention of the parties to the contract must not prevail and the intention is to be looked for in the policy itself, read as a whole.
B) The intention of the parties to the contract must prevail and the intention is to be looked for in the policy itself, read as a whole.
C) The intention of the parties to the contract must prevail and the intention is to be avoided for in the policy itself, read as a whole.
D) The intention of the parties to the contract must not prevail and the intention is to be avoided for in the policy itself, read as a whole.
E) The intention of the parties to the contract must prevail and the intention is not to be looked for in the policy itself, read as a whole.

Q. What does the principle of indemnity simply says?
A) The insured is adequately indemnified if he is restored to the financial position which he occupies at the time of loss
B) The insured is adequately indemnified if he is restored to the financial position which he occupies at the time of profit.
C) The insurer is adequately indemnified if he is restored to the financial position which he occupies at the time of loss
D) The insurer is adequately indemnified if he is restored to the financial position which he occupies at the time of profit
E) The re-insured is adequately indemnified if he is restored to the financial position which he occupies at the time of loss

Q. What provisions should apply when covers granted midterm?
A) Insurers must receive specific advice from the insured accompanied by payment of additional premium
B) Cover shall commence 15 days after the receipt of premium
C) Premium rates shall be charged on short period scale on full sum insured for the balance period i.e., up to the expiry of the policy.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Online Test for Marine Insurance (Department 02) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs. Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. State the duration of Contingencies cover.
A) Cover attaches as in ICC(A) &continues during the ordinary course of transit to terminate when the goods are delivered to the final ware house.
B) Some provisions apply to allocation or distribution of the goods prior to delivery, the only difference being in the time limit.
C) The air cargo clause apply a 30days time limit after unloading from the aircraft as against.
D) Same as the “Change of Voyage” Clause in ICC(A) and remaining clauses are identical to their counter parts in the ICC(A)
E) All the above.

Q. State the cargo ISM Endorsement.
A) The clause is about safety aspect to be compulsory complied with by vessels of 500 Gross Tonne (GT) or more (with effect from 1st July 2002).
B) The vessel should comply with ISM Code & have the papers on board vessel.
C) If consignor & / or his agents aware about non compliance then loss, damage, expenses not covered.
D) The exclusion does not apply to buyer of cargo in good faith if he was not aware of non compliance.
E) All of the above.

Q. Under strike exclusion, the insurance shall no cover loss, damage or expense cause by what?
A) Caused by strikers, locked out workmen or persons taking part in labour disturbances, riots or civil commotions
B) Resulting from strikes, lock-outs, labour disturbances, riots or civil commotions
C) Caused by any terrorist or any person acting from apolitical motive
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Q. Identify the term where the cover provided by the Air Cargo War Clauses is almost identical to the cover in the Marine Cargo War Clauses.
A) Institute Cargo Clauses (AIR)
B) Institute War Clauses(AIR Cargo)
C) Institute Strike Clauses( Cargo)
D) Institute War Clauses(Cargo)
E) Institute Strike Clauses (Air Cargo)

Q. Identify the clause that means to sift, to cleanse, o separate sound from the whole which many have got mixed up with some other material.
A) Label Clause
B) Brand and Trade Marks Clause
C) Concealed Damage Clause
D) Garbling Clause
E) Institute Classification Clause

Q. Identify the term where many products and commodities can be economically palliated or utilized to facilitate handling, stowage and general protection of cargo.
A) Corrugated Fiberboard (CF) boxes/ cartons
B) Wooden boxes/ cases
C) Bags/ sacs
D) Bales
E) Unitizing the packages

Q. Variations do occur in the packing requirements of particular types of goods involving particular transits. State the factors that always present.
A) Strength of the packing material and weight of the package unit
B) Handling mobility of the package unit
C) Inherent qualities of the commodities or product packed
D) Hazards involved in a transit
E) All of the above

Q. With how much greater stability, a 15,000 tonner (Vessel, whose Gross Tonnage is 15,000) will normally ride through an Atlantic storm or Indian Ocean cyclone?
A) Greater stability than a 4,000 tonner
B) Greater stability than a 3,000 tonner
C) Greater stability than a 2,000 tonner
D) Greater stability than a 1,000 tonner
E) Greater stability than a 500 tonner

Q. As per Indian Practice, when the premium is to be paid?
A) In advance after commencement of transit
B) Not in advance but before the commencement of transit
C) In advance before commence of transit
D) Not before any commencement
E) Not before any transit

Q. When does the process of arranging insurance starts?
A) It starts with submission of a proposal to the insurer.
B) It starts with submission of a proposal to the reinsurer
C) It starts with submission of a proposal to the underwriter
D) It starts with submission of a proposal to the assure
E) It starts with submission of a proposal to the policy holder

Online Test for  Miscellaneous Insurance (Including  Motor and Engineering Insurance) (Department 03) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs. Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. Choose the best answer:
A) In dwelling huts insurance for a minimum sum insured of Rs. 6,000/- (agreed value policy) comprising Rs. 5,000/- for structure and Rs. 1,000/- for contents.
B) In dwelling huts insurance for a maximum sum insured of Rs. 6,000/- (agreed value policy) comprising Rs. 5,000/- for structure and Rs. 1,000/- for contents.
C) In dwelling huts insurance for a maximum sum insured of Rs. 6,000/- (agreed value policy) comprising Rs. 5,000/- for structure and Rs. 5,000/- for contents.

Q. According to Section 32 C, every insurer shall provide insurance policies to the persons __________
A) Residing in the rural sector
B) Working in the unorganized or informal sector
C) Who are economically vulnerable
D) Who belong to backward classes of the society and other category of persons
E) All the statements are true

Q. Small cultivators and the underprivileged section of rural population, special programmers, particularly suited to these classes of people programs are popularly known as ______________and Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labourers (MFAL) Projects.
A) Small Fishers Development Agency (SFDA)
B) Small Foreigners Development Agency (SFDA)
C) Small Fun Development Agency (SFDA)
D) Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA)

Q. Under the provision of the Insurance Act 1938 (as amended) a fixed percentage of each and every risk underwritten in India has to be compulsorily reinsured with the G.I.C. of India. This percentage was 20 percent and later reduced to 10 percent and is called ______________
A) ‘Cessions’
B) ‘Statutory Cessions’
C) ‘Ceeding’
D) ‘Ceeded’

Q. The event insurance coverage normally sought for _____________
A) Cancellation of event due to accident or illness to the performers
B) Cancellation of the event due to specified perils like fire, riot, strike and AOG perils etc.,
C) Liabilities cover for spectators, participants and performers
D) “Loss of profit” cover due to cancellation or postponement of the event
E) All the statements are true

Q. In identity theft covers scenarios are excluded from the policy are ____________
A) Charges more than specified number of hours prior to first reporting the loss of the card.
B) Charges post reporting the loss of the card.
C) Cash advances made by card.
D) Charges incurred by a person whom the card was entrusted to
E) All the statements are true

Q. Choose the best answer:
A) Potential risk factors for small businesses with websites include getting hacked, spammers and troubles with online service functionality.
B) The insidious criminals who perpetrate online crimes necessitate obtaining e-commerce insurance to protect company and customer information.
C) If a business website gets hacked, the company and its customers are at risk for viruses and violations of personal and financial information.
D) All the statements are true

Q. Which of the following is not likely to be covered under householder insurance policy?
A) Loss of or damage to personal baggage due to accident or misfortune whilst travelling anywhere across the globe
B) Loss of or damage to personal baggage due to accident or misfortune whilst travelling anywhere in India
C) Personal accident insurance for insured, his spouse and children
D) Loss of or damage to jewellery and valuables caused by accident or misfortune whilst anywhere in India.

Q. A horse insurance policy provides indemnity in respect of death of a horse occurring from ___________
A) Disease contracted whilst within the specified area during the period of insurance
B) Disease contracted whilst in transit within the specified geographical area during the period of insurance
C) Disease contracted whilst being outside the specified area during the period of insurance
D) Disease contracted whilst within the specified area after the period of insurance is over

Q. To the extent of which one of the options, the insurer liability respect of each Janata agent is limited to?
A) Five percent of basic sum insured or Rs 1,000/-
B) 10 percent of basic sum insured or Rs 5,000/-
C) Five percent of basic sum insured or Rs 10,000/-
D) Five percent of basic sum insured or Rs 1,00,000/-

Online Test for Accounts & Investment (Department 04) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs. Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. Expected Return on the market in 16% and Risk free rate is 6%, which of the following projects be accepted.
A) A:β = 0.50, Return = 11.5%
B) B: β = 1.25, Return = 18.0%
C) C: β = 1, Return = 15.5%
D) D: β = 2, return = 25.0%

Q. Annual nominal Interest rates in country X and country Y are 6% and 12% respectively. Current exchange rate is 5 units of X per unit of Y. 3 months forward rate would be
A) 4.756
B) 4.927
C) 5.295
D) 5.085

Q. 80% of sales of Rs. 10,00,000 of a firm are on credit. It has a Receivable Turnover of 8. What is the Average collection period (360 days a year) and Average Debtors of the firm?
A) 45 days and Rs. 1,00,000
B) 360 days and Rs. 1,00,000
C) 45 days and Rs. 8,00,000
D) 360 days and Rs. 1,25,000.

Q. Money Discount Rate if equal to:
A) (1 + Inflation Rate) (1 + Real Rate)-1
B) (1 + Inflation Rate) 4- (1 + Real Rate)-1
C) (1 + Real Rate) 4- (1 + Inflation Rate)-1
D) (1 + Real Rate) + (1 + Inflation Rate)-1

Q. Find the incorrect one: The journal is ----
A) Books of prime entry.
B) As soon as transaction originates it is recorded in Journal.
C) Debit and Credit amounts of transaction are recorded in adjacent columns.
D) Journal is balanced.
E) Final accounts can’t be prepared directly.

Q. _______ helps accountants what to record and what not to record, helps in recording uniformly, facilitates comparison of performance of two different periods of the same firm for the same period.
A) Business entity concept.
B) Realization concept.
C) Matching concept.
D) Money measurement concept.
ANSWER: D

Q. Which of the following statements are incorrect? i) In accounting all the business transactions are recorded based on the concept of dual aspect. ii) Accrual concept implies accounting on cash basis. iii) Revenues are matched with the expenses in accordance with the matching principle. iv) In accordance with the principle of conservatism, the accountant should provide for all possible losses, but should not provide for anticipated income.
A) All of the above.
B) Only (i) and (ii).
C) Only (iii) and (iv).
D) Only (ii) and (iii).

Q. Which of the following is true for accounting for investment as per AS-13?
A) It is not applicable to investment in financial instrument.
B) It is not applicable to investment in immovable property.
C) It is applicable to operating lease but not to financial lease.
D) It is applicable only to short term investments.

Q. Reserve for unexpired risk is made at _______ for marine business and ______ for other classes of business.
A) 100% of net premium, 50% of the net premium.
B) 50% of net premium, 100% of net premium.
C) 100% of claims accepted, 50% of claims accepted.
D) 50% of claims accepted, 100% of claims accepted.

Q. In foreign currency transactions, the assets and liabilities of the non-integral foreign operations, both monetary and non-monetary are translated at __________.
A) The opening rate.
B) The closing rate.
C) The average rate.
D) The economy rate.

Online Test for Personal and Legal (Department 05) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs.Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. As per Leave Rules, two types of leave from among the following cannot be availed in conjunction
A. Earned leave with Casual leave
B. Earned leave with Sick leave
C. Casual leaves with Sick leave
D. Quarantine leave with Sick leave

Q. As per LTS rules for officers in Scale IV, where the entitlement is by air and the employee has traveled partly by air and partly by rail in AC Ist class total travel not exceeding 1900 kms, what will be the basis of reimbursement ____________
A. Full reimbursement by air for 1900 Kms
B. Full reimbursement by rail AC II tier fare for 1900 Kms
C. Full reimbursement by rail AC Ist Class fare for 1900 Kms
D. Prorate reimbursement by air on actual and balance on AC II tier basis for rail journey.

Q. What are the ideas underpinning soft commitment or high road HRM practices?
A. Labour needs to be treated as assets to be invested in.
B. Employees are a cost which should be minimized.
C. A lack of mutuality existing between employee and employer
D. A disregard for unlocking discretionary effort

Q. Which of the following would likely be the least effective method of recruiting internal job candidates?
A. Posting information on Organisational bulletin boards
B. Examining HR records of current employees
C. Advertising in national newspapers and journals
C. Internal Sources

Q. The interview is used as a method for determining
A. The personality of the candidate
B. The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.
C. His/her age.
D. Physical attributes

The area from which applicants can be recruited is ______
A. Job agencies
B. Labour markets
C. Employment lines
D. Labour unions

Q. If the services of a person who has opted for pension, is terminated by way of imposing a major penalty, which of the following benefits are not payable
A. Provident Fund
B. Voluntary Provident Fund
C. Pension
D. None of the above

Q. Which of the following are the challenges to personnel management?
A. Globalization
B. Political and Legal factors
C. Technological changes
D. All of these

Q. Which of the following are the functions of personnel management?
A. Managerial function
B. Operative function
C. Both a & b
D. All of these

Q. Managerial functions of personnel management includes
A. Planning & organizing
B. Directing
C. Both a & b
D. All of these

Online Test for Data Processing/ Mechanization & Management Information System (Department 06) for PARA 13.1 and 13.2 Examination - 2019. Covering Latest 500 MCQs. Questions are divided into 5 Practice Paper, per paper carrying 100 MCQs (unlimited attempts) 1 year validity and 3 Final Papers (2 attempts per paper), per paper carrying 50 MCQs and time limit for per paper as per exam module.

Sample Questions

Q. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. The degree to which information needs to be summarized increases as one moves up through the management levels
B. Low level managers made unstructured decisions
C. Upper managers make unstructured decisions
D. Low level managers need general information about operating activities.

Q. Where EDP auditors can be used?
A. Implementation phase of MIS development
B. Planning phase of MIS development
B. Analysis and design phase of MIS development
D. All of the above

Q. The parts of a system may be analyzed in the sequence
A. Outputs, objective, management, information processor, input, transformation
B. Objectives, outputs, management, information processor, input, transformation
C. Objectives, outputs, information processor, management, input transformation
D. Outputs, inputs, objectives, management, information processor, transformation

Q. In an experiment in which a new drug was being tested on 1000 rats, which one of the following would a computer be least able to do?
A. Determine the total amount of drug that had been given to all 1000 rats keep records of weight changes of the 1000 rats
B. Keep records of the dosages and the dates the drug was given to each rat
C. Determine the total dosage that had been given to each rat
D. Decide whether the drug was safe enough for use on humans

Q. State the data recording format in most of the modern magnetic tape.
A. 7 bit ASCII
B. 7 bit EBCDIC
C. 8 bit ASCII
D. 8 bit EBCDIC

Q. An information processor includes
A. the data base and the model base
B. the central processing unit
C. incoming data and outgoing information
D. incoming data, the central processing unit, the model base, outgoing information, and the data base
E. None of the above

Q. The Management Information System (MIS) provides timely and effective information to support decision making and other necessary management functions. Can you point out the sub-system which does not being to the MIS?
A. Operational Tectical System
B. Decision Support System (DSS)
C. Data Communication System
D. Automated Office System
E. None of the above

Q. The MIS structure with one main computer system is called a:
A. distributed MIS structure
B. hierarchical MIS structures
C. centralized MIS structure
D. decentralized MIS structure
E. None of the above

Q. State the decimal value of the hexa decimal number AO
A. 160
B. 180
C. 200
D. 210

Q. State the greatest negative number that can be stored in a computer that has 8 bit word length and can be use as 2s complement arithmetic.
A. -127
B. -128
C. -129
D. -130

Q. A lock Box service is used for what?
A. Depositing payments to bank customers
B. Depositing cash when bank is closed
C. Paying bank customers bills automatically
D. Storing papers in a Bank vault

PARA 13.2 English and General Knowledge. English Paper covering all section with 500 MCQs and 10 Practice sets (25 Marks) and General Knowledge covering all sections with 1000 MCQs, MCQs on Current affairs (2018 - 2019) and 10 Practice sets (50 Marks).  Essay, Precis and Letter Writing Sets will be upload after 15th April

Content (English)

• Synonyms Quiz


• Antonyms Quiz


• Common Error Quiz


• Cloze Test Quiz


• Comprehension Quiz


• Fill in the Blanks Quiz


• Idioms and Phrases Quiz


• Narrations Quiz


• One Word Substitution Quiz


• Prepositions Quiz


• Jumbled Words Quiz


• Change of Voice Quiz

Content (GK)

• Books and Slogans Quiz


• Economics Quiz


• Science Quiz


• History Quiz


• Geography Quiz


• First Incidents Quiz


• Indian Politics Quiz


• Sports Quiz


• Technology Quiz


• Miscellaneous Paper : 01 Quiz


• Miscellaneous Paper : 02 Quiz


• Last Year Question Paper Quiz


• Current affairs